This is why your example is bad, if we apply the same punishement to the employee, then we don't only take the 1M$ but also the 50K salary wich is totaly unfair.
If we apply the same punishment, both team and driver lose all their points. Teams loss = the drivers cumulative loss. In this case the team has been punished and the drivers have not punished at all.
Why is it that the employee would also lose his $50k salary? That salary is not tied to the illegal gains. The illegal gain is $1 million!
What I am saying is that Hamilton's unfair gain and Alonso's unfair gain equal TOUI's unfair points benefit (irrespective of what the other technical directors think because the WMSC had a different verdict) because constructor pts = Alonso pts + Hamilton pts.
Since TOUI lost all their points, why have the drivers not lost a single point? What I am saying is that TOUI's implied benefit (given today's decision) was 166 WCC points, which they lost. That figure is arrived at by adding Alonso's 89 to Hamilton's 92 while deducting the Hungary fiasco points. If the team's implied benefit was 166 or 181 without Hungary deduction, then the driver's implied benefits were 89 and 92. The 89 and 92 pts would be identical to the $1 million bonus that was part of the company's $50m illegitimate benefit.
Again, I never said anything about taking more than their benefit. I think it is impossible to determine what their exact benefit is in terms of points. Same thing with the team. The implied benefit was 166, in my opinion. That's why the cheaters got docked all their constructors points, instead of 10, 22, 34, 56, etc.
I don't understand why you think I want to punish the employee (drivers) more than the employer (TOUI). I am only advocating that they receive the same punishment! If the team loses that one point he scored for the team because the driver loses one point because the driver was driving the team's car. Am I not explaining something properly?